[OSM-talk] What would you do if...
Robert T Wyatt
robert.wyatt at mail.utexas.edu
Tue Jan 30 20:48:43 GMT 2007
> Just a question on the law here: isn't there something that says if
> there's nothing to indicate it isn't a right of way such as a gate
> saying private, and people use it for a right of way for over a certain
> time, then it is in fact now a right of way?
> I was under that impression because of the number of signs you find
> around saying there is no implied right of way and quoting something
> like the highways act 1975. Although that might be just a liability
> thing I suppose.
One could probably research this under rights of adverse possession or
squatter's rights if one chose.
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