<br><br><div><span class="gmail_quote">On 29/01/07, <b class="gmail_sendername">Dave</b> <<a href="mailto:osm.list@randomjunk.co.uk">osm.list@randomjunk.co.uk</a>> wrote:</span><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="border-left: 1px solid rgb(204, 204, 204); margin: 0pt 0pt 0pt 0.8ex; padding-left: 1ex;">
<span class="q"></span><div><span class="q"></span><br><div>Just a question on the law here: isn't there something that says if there's nothing to indicate it isn't a right of way such as a gate saying private, and people use it for a right of way for over a certain time, then it is in fact now a right of way?
<br><br>I was under that impression because of the number of signs you find around saying there is no implied right of way and quoting something like the highways act 1975. Although that might be just a liability thing I suppose.
<br><br></div></div></blockquote></div><br>Yes, I remember reading the council minutes on a path which was a disused railway south of Newbury (oh the glamour!). People had used it for so long that it was considered a right of way, despite being on land owned by a farmer. The onus was on him to display a sign saying "not a right of way", otherwise after 25 (?) years it would become right of way. [1]
<br><br><br>Ben<br><br>[1] This may not be worded exactly as it's written in the law books ;-)<br><br>-- <br><a href="mailto:ben@crouchingbadger.com">ben@crouchingbadger.com</a> | <a href="http://crouchingbadger.com">
http://crouchingbadger.com</a><br>51.717817,-1.225855