[OSM-legal-talk] Remapping using GPX traces?

[Nick Whitelegg]

Hi,

As I've indicated already, in my local area - Hampshire - there are very large numbers of footpaths contributed by a former mapper who has declined the CTs and so obviously I'm concerned about the impact of April 1st.

Remapping these on the ground is going to be a huge job and something I'm unlikely to have the time for. However, I was thinking: in areas where I know for sure there's a footpath, could I use the original GPX trace as source material? Or, if the GPX was contributed by the former mapper does that mean that the actual OSM data would inherit the declined status from the GPX trace? What if the GPX traces are anonymous?

Clearly if I can use the GPX trace, this will mean that re-mapping his contributions might be rather more feasible, at least in certain areas where I know where the footpaths go.

Thanks,
Nick

-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://lists.openstreetmap.org/pipermail/legal-talk/attachments/20120211/87b0e367/attachment.html>