[OSM-newbies] marking residential areas
Tom Evans
tom_evans_a at yahoo.co.uk
Sat Jan 12 10:55:01 GMT 2008
I've noticed there seems to be some inconsistency in whether
landuse=residential areas are used in different areas, and wasn't sure
what to do myself. I'm near Cambridge and round here just the other
landuses are applied. Looking elsewhere, Isle of Wight seems to have
them all marked, bits of London not (where I looked, anyway). Is this a
historical thing, or an ongoing issue of some kind?
What's the reasoning here? And what do other people do?
Is there an assumption that the area immediately around a
highway=residential road is residential, so they don't need to be marked
with landuse too?
I'm having a slight practical problem in that, just surveying on the ground,
I have to guess at the outline. I know where the fronts of houses are but
I've got to sketch the outer edge of a village by pure guesswork. (don't
have good Yahoo photos here) Is this guessing better than nothing, or
worse?
Is this just personal taste, and nobody really wants to start disagreeing
with other mapmakers?
Would it be rude to go and add residential landuse areas to somewhere
that somebody else has already otherwise mapped fully?
And why does osmarender mark residential areas so faintly that I can't
even see it on some monitors?
Thanks,
Tom
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