[Tagging] Is a sidewalk always adjacent to a traversable road?
simone.saviolo at gmail.com
Thu Aug 25 12:50:04 BST 2011
2011/8/25 Anthony <osm at inbox.org>
> On Thu, Aug 25, 2011 at 4:30 AM, Simone Saviolo
> <simone.saviolo at gmail.com> wrote:
> > Woah, stop :-) What I meant is:
> > - we've always said that each way should represent a linear feature;
> > - for highways, this means a carriageway. If a road has a single two-way
> > carriageway, i.e., if a car going from A to B can go on the opposite lane
> > (the one used by those who go from B to A), then it should be drawn as a
> > single way. If there is an actual physical separation such as a barrier
> > example on motorways) then there are two carriageways and two ways should
> > drawn (*usually* each one would be one-way).
> > - it is disputed whether to draw two ways where two lanes are divided by
> > traffic island (which is a legal strict separation, even stricter than
> > continuous line, but not a physical separation)
> That's what's said, anyway. Personally I've always considered it
> false to say that these two lanes aren't physically separated. Those
> lines drawn on the ground aren't figments of my imagination.
I can understand the arguments: after all, you can physically go from a lane
to the other with your car, so they aren't physically separated. Personally,
I'm in favour of drawing two distinct ways.
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