[Openstreetmap] Coders needed for similar project & UK FOI actrequest update.

[Clive Galway]

Are you serious ??
If I obtain lat/lng cords from my GPS unit and punch those in to my
program, it will overlay them on a google map. Does google in any way
own that data ? No. In my system, you can just as easily click a point
on the map to add a location just as easily. When you submit a point and
add it to the database there is no way to tell whether it came from a
gps unit or you clicked on the map - all that is stored in my database
is the latitude and longitude.
So is there any way google or any mapping company can "own" that point ?
surely not.
OK, so maybe if you used my application to trace all the roads and stuff
on the map in google then your use would break some laws but surely the
program itself isn't illegal.
All it is is a way of storing coordinates and have google generate the
maps in the background.

-----Original Message-----
From: openstreetmap-bounces at vr.ucl.ac.uk
[mailto:openstreetmap-bounces at vr.ucl.ac.uk] On Behalf Of Richard
Fairhurst
Sent: 09 November 2005 19:11
To: openstreetmap at vr.ucl.ac.uk
Subject: Re: [Openstreetmap] Coders needed for similar project & UK FOI
actrequest update.

Christopher Schmidt posted a good explanation of the derived-mapping 
issue, including:

> Using mapping data provided by TeleAtlas (the street data on Google
> Maps) to annotate locations is creating a derived work: you are using
> the data provided by an external data source to plot your points. The
> only way in which that isn't the case is the use of Satellite maps to
> map data instead.

Slight clarification: satellite maps _may_ be ok. That's certainly one 
reading of UK law (and the one I agree with). But you might be best 
advised to consult a proper lawyer before basing an entire project on 
this.

Richard


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