[OSM-talk] Maps and names

Andy Robinson Andy_J_Robinson at blueyonder.co.uk
Fri Sep 1 14:50:44 BST 2006


Can you use the same argument as for a book?

If I copy a word or even words from a book that is just copying fact is it
not? Those same words appear in any dictionary. However if I copy the
layout, paragraphs or structure of how those words exist in the book I would
presumably be infringing the writers copyright?

Applying the same to a map, if I look at the map and see "Park",
"Birmingham" or even "Baker Street" these are the facts that exist in the
real world. So would it therefore be only the representation of these facts
on the copyrighted map that are the issue?

Cheers

Andy

Andy Robinson
Andy_J_Robinson at blueyonder.co.uk 

>-----Original Message-----
>From: talk-bounces at openstreetmap.org [mailto:talk-
>bounces at openstreetmap.org] On Behalf Of Emil
>Sent: 01 September 2006 2:27 PM
>To: talk at openstreetmap.org
>Subject: Re: [OSM-talk] Maps and names
>
>> On 9/1/06, Lars Aronsson <lars at aronsson.se> wrote:
>
>> Unless the lat/long coordinates in the original Wikipedia articles were
>> collected using GPS then chances are that this information was lifted
>from a
>> map.  Wikipedia's GFDL license would not protect us from the original
>> copyright infringment.
>
>Well some of us don't think taking coords from a map is copyright
>infringement - as the posts below show, this view leads to ridiculous
>conclusions. I'll say it again: you can't copyright facts.
>
>I understand people are scared of lawyers - but I think some sort of
>stand needs to be taken here - we need to call bullshit on the OS etc
>who think they can copyright facts.
>
>Emil
>
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