[OSM-talk] Use of OSM data without attribution
Mateusz Konieczny
matkoniecz at tutanota.com
Fri Sep 11 16:32:15 UTC 2020
11 Sep 2020, 18:18 by dieterdreist at gmail.com:
>
>
> sent from a phone
>
>> On 11. Sep 2020, at 13:21, Mateusz Konieczny via talk <talk at openstreetmap.org> wrote:
>>
>> For example on my laser cut map I used
>> "Dane z OpenStreetMap na licencji ODBL"
>> as it will be used in way where Polish
>> would be clearly expected to be
>> understood
>>
>
>
> will this limit the places where you can exhibit the work to Poland?
>
Or more specifically to places where all people can be
assumed to be able to understand
Polish.
It should be easy to find places in
Poland where many do not understand
Polish at all (airports for start).
In this case it is a gift for a friend so it
should be fine, I think.
It would be interesting who would
be in violation if that plywood piece would
be displayed publicly in place where this
assumption would not hold true.
I am quite curious about answers butnot enough to spend £€¥ on a lawyer.
> Or would it be sufficient attribution also for a display in e.g. London?
>
Probably no, but I am not a lawyer,
and also not someone able to answer
is meaning clear for English-only speaker.
So I am not certain but I assume that answer is "no".
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