[Tagging] lanes = 0

Jérôme Seigneuret jerome.seigneuret at gmail.com
Tue Jul 30 12:02:44 UTC 2019


if lanes is about the total amount of marked "2-tracked-vehicle"-lanes (as
it is according to my understanding), then lanes=0 means no marked lanes.

No simply because 2 lanes = opposites 1 forward 1 backward marked or not.
This a routing comportement.

You can have 2 lanes but no mark on road. This is the case in rural France
road. Legaly,  absence of marking is permit and you need fix right position
on road.

https://www.mapillary.com/map/im/bPYmBV9vGQr2CxoSIKGfRw this is 2 lanes
departmental road. In fact in some routing tools if there is no lane there
is no road. A lane is not in relation to road marking.

Same remark as Paul

Le mar. 30 juil. 2019 à 13:33, Paul Allen <pla16021 at gmail.com> a écrit :

> On Tue, 30 Jul 2019 at 12:21, Martin Koppenhoefer <dieterdreist at gmail.com>
> wrote:
>
> if lanes is about the total amount of marked "2-tracked-vehicle"-lanes (as
>> it is according to my understanding), then lanes=0 means no marked lanes.
>>
>
> That's logical but not particularly useful.  Around here there are a lot
> of minor roads.  Some of
> them are only wide enough for one vehicle, so are unmarked.  By your logic
> that's lanes=0.
> Some of them are wide enough for two vehicles, but still unmarked.  By
> your logic that's
> also lanes=0.  For many of us, it's nice to know if an unmarked road is
> only wide enough
> for one vehicle (so you might have to back up to a passing place one or
> more times) or
> wide enough for two vehicles.  The presence or absence of marking can
> really only be
> used to infer the presence or absence of marking and nothing more.
>
> --
> Paul
>
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>


-- 
Cordialement,
Jérôme Seigneuret
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