[OSM-talk] What would you do if...

[Robert T Wyatt]

Dave wrote:
> Just a question on the law here: isn't there something that says if
> there's nothing to indicate it isn't a right of way such as a gate
> saying private, and people use it for a right of way for over a certain
> time, then it is in fact now a right of way?
> 
> I was under that impression because of the number of signs you find
> around saying there is no implied right of way and quoting something
> like the highways act 1975. Although that might be just a liability
> thing I suppose.

One could probably research this under rights of adverse possession or
squatter's rights if one chose.