[OSM-talk] Path vs footway vs cycleway vs...

Cartinus cartinus at xs4all.nl
Mon Nov 30 07:45:10 GMT 2009


On Monday 30 November 2009 08:29:22 Nop wrote:
> Let me apply your logic to a different use case. Just imagine that in my
> country there is a law that generally allows bicycles to use a one-way
> road in both directions.
>
> So I would define one-way as "mainly or exclusively intended for use in
> one direction, bicycles may use both" and I claim that this is sufficient.
>
> If you have a more rigid law where one-way is strictly for all vehicles,
>   it does not matter, fuzzy logic is good. Right?

Yes, because there are two solutions to that "problem".

1) Add an extra tag in that single country that differs from the rest of the 
world. But don't bother all the other mappers.

2) Any sufficiently sophisticated router will pre-process the data and it can 
do something with different national defaults.


-- 
m.v.g.,
Cartinus


P.S. Gosmore ignores oneway for bicycle routing, but not for car routing. One 
wonders why?




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